DEFINITIVE  ORTHODONTIC TREATMENT

 

 

 

1) Excessive orthodontic force used to move a tooth may:
a) Cause hyalinization.
b) Cause undermining resoption.
c) Crush the periodontal ligament.
d) All the above.

2) Slow progress in molar uprighting in an adult patient is due to:
a) Overextended bands.
b) Lack of anchorage control.
c) The occlusion not being relieved.
d) The stabilizing wire not being passive.

3) The ideal force to slide a canine distally is approximately:
a) 150 gram.
b) 175 gram.
c) 200 gram.
d) 225 gram.

4) Tooth positioners to details occlusal relation ship are usually used with:
a) Begg`s appliance.
b) Edgewise appliance.
c) Removable appliance.
d) Combined anchorage technique.

5) An 8 – year-old patient has cusp to cusp molar relation and normal vertical and horizontal overlap. Mandibular lateral incisors are erupting slightly lingually .The dentist should:
a) Refer the patient to an orthodontist.
b) Place a lingual arch.
c) Continue routine dental care and supervise the development of detention.
d) Carry orthodontic treatment for correction of class II molar relationship and reposition the lateral incisors.
 


6) A 7 ?year-old patient has a unilateral posterior cross bite due to functional shift of mandible the treatment indicated for this involves:
a) Unilateral expansion of maxillary posterior teeth on the affected side.
b) Bi lateral expansion of maxillary arch.
c) Muscle exercise to control the mandible shift.
d) Observation with no active treatment until successdanous teeth erupt.

7) A 9-year-old child has crowding of the mandibular anterior teeth , end to end molar relation ship and a class II facial profile . the mixed dention analysis shows a 4.4 mm mandibular space discrepancy. Which of the following is best management at this time:
a) Refer the child to orthodontic.
b) Begin serial extraction to create room for posterior teeth.
c) Remove mandibular lateral incisor to allow the crowded anr\terior teeth to align themselves.
d) Do nothing because the probability is good that the child`s apperant malocclusion is a transitional stage and future growth spurts will correct the problem.
 


8) For an 8 years olds patient with good posterior occlusion, no arch length deficiency, one maxillary central incisor severely rotated and a large midline diastema present, the procedure of choice is to:
a) Have the labial frenum excised.
b) Rotate the tooth with the appliance.
c) Examine for supernumerary tooth.
d) Inject thyroid hormone to stimulate eruption of lateral incisor.

9) An 11 –year-old patient who is wearing a full bonded, orthodontic appliance has inflamed gingiva, the family dentist should:
a) Encourage better oral hyiegene.
b) Ask the orthodontist to remove the bands so the healing will occur.
c) Perform gingivoplasty.
d) Non of the above.

 


10) An 8 – year – old patient with all primary molars still present exhibits cusp to cusp relation ship of permanent maxillary and mandibular 1st molar. The dentist should:
a) Continue regular recall.
b) Plan serial extraction for normal adjustment of occlusion.
c) Refer the patient to the orthodontist for consultation.
d) Disc the distal surfaces of primary mandibular 2nd molars to allow normal adjustment of permanent molars.


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